[Apr-2024] SK0-005 exam torrent CompTIA study guide [Q206-Q230]

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[Apr-2024] SK0-005 exam torrent CompTIA study guide

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CompTIA Server+ Certification is a valuable credential for IT professionals who are looking to advance their careers. It is recognized by employers around the world and can help individuals stand out in a competitive job market. Additionally, certified professionals can earn higher salaries and enjoy greater job security than their non-certified counterparts.


CompTIA SK0-005 certification exam is an industry-recognized certification that can help IT professionals advance their careers. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is vendor-neutral, which means it is not tied to any specific server hardware or software technology. This makes it an ideal certification for IT professionals who work with a variety of server technologies. Additionally, the certification is recognized by many organizations, including government agencies, as a benchmark for server skills and knowledge.


CompTIA SK0-005 certification exam is an essential certification for IT professionals who work with server infrastructure. It validates the candidate's skills and knowledge in server administration, making them more valuable to employers. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is globally recognized and vendor-neutral, making it an ideal certification for IT professionals who work with different types of servers and vendors.

 

NEW QUESTION # 206
A server administrator is configuring the IP address on a newly provisioned server in the testing environment. The network VLANs are configured as follows:

The administrator configures the IP address for the new server as follows:
IP address: 192.168.1.1/24
Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
A ping sent to the default gateway is not successful. Which of the following IP address/default gateway combinations should the administrator have used for the new server?

  • A. IP address: 192.168.10.2/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
  • B. IP address: 192.168.1.2/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
  • C. IP address: 192.168.10.24/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.30.1
  • D. IP address: 192.168.10.3/24
    Default gateway: 192.168.20.1

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 207
A server administrator has been creating new VMs one by one. The administrator notices the system requirements are very similar, even with different applications. Which of the following would help the administrator accomplish this task in the SHORTEST amount of time and meet the system requirements?

  • A. Snapshot
  • B. System Restore
  • C. Deduplication
  • D. Template

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The method that would help the administrator accomplish the task of creating new VMs in the shortest amount of time and meet the system requirements is template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.


NEW QUESTION # 208
A server administrator is building a pair of new storage servers. The servers will replicate; therefore, no redundancy is required, but usable capacity must be maximized. Which of the following RAID levels should the server administrator implement?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3
  • E. 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The RAID level that should be implemented to maximize usable capacity without requiring redundancy is RAID 0. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID 0 is a RAID level that splits data evenly across two or more disks without parity or mirroring. RAID 0 does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance, but it increases usable capacity and performance by allowing parallel read and write operations.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.2, Objective 1.2


NEW QUESTION # 209
A server technician notices a server is very low on disk space. Upon inspecting the disk utilization, the technician discovers server logs are taxing up a large amount of space. There is no central log server. Which of the following would help free up disk space?

  • A. Log rotation
  • B. Log analysis
  • C. Log shipping
  • D. Log alerting

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 210
A technician is connecting a Linux server to a share on a NAS. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate native protocol to use for this task?

  • A. SFTP
  • B. NFS
  • C. FTP
  • D. CIFS

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.redhat.com/en/topics/data-storage/network-attached-storage


NEW QUESTION # 211
A technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Which of the following BEST represents how the technician should proceed with troubleshooting?

  • A. Make one change at a time and test.
  • B. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process.
  • C. Perform a root cause analysis.
  • D. Determine whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
This is the best way to proceed with troubleshooting when the technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Making one change at a time and testing allows the technician to isolate the cause and effect of each solution and determine which one works best. It also helps to avoid introducing new problems or complicating existing ones by making multiple changes at once. Determining whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems is a good step to perform before identifying possible solutions, but not after. Performing a root cause analysis is a good step to perform after resolving the issue, but not during. Documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process is a good practice to follow at every step of troubleshooting, but not a specific way to proceed with testing possible solutions.
References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/174288/how-to-tell-if-your-computer-is-overheating-and-what-to-do-about-it/
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/


NEW QUESTION # 212
Which of the following policies would be BEST to deter a brute-force login attack?

  • A. Password reuse
  • B. Password complexity
  • C. Account lockout threshold
  • D. Account age threshold

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reference:
https://sucuri.net/guides/what-is-brute-force-attack/


NEW QUESTION # 213
An administrator is investigating a physical server mat will not Boot into the OS. The server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array. The server passes POST, out the OS does not load. The administrator verities the CPU and RAM are Doth seated correctly and checks the dual power supplies. The administrator then verifies all the BIOS settings are correct and connects a bootable USB drive in the server, and the OS loads correctly. Which of the following is causing the issue?

  • A. The page file is too small.
  • B. The CPU has failed.
  • C. There are multiple failed hard drives.
  • D. RAID 5 requires four drives
  • E. There are mismatched RAM modules.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
If a server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array, it means that the data is striped across all three drives with parity information. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without losing data, but not two or more.
If there are multiple failed hard drives, the RAID 5 array will become corrupted and the OS will not load. The other options are not likely to cause the issue, as the server passes POST, the CPU and RAM are seated correctly, the BIOS settings are correct, and the OS loads from a bootable USB drive. RAID 5 does not require four drives, it can work with three or more. References: https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-5/


NEW QUESTION # 214
A systems administrator has several different types of hard drives. The administrator is setting up a MAS that will allow end users to see all the drives within the NAS. Which of the following storage types should the administrator use?

  • A. RAID array
  • B. Just a bunch of disks
  • C. Solid-state drive
  • D. Serial Attached SCSI

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks) is a storage configuration that combines different types and sizes of hard drives into one logical unit without any RAID level or redundancy. It allows users to see all the drives within the unit as one large storage space. JBOD can utilize all the available capacity of the drives but does not provide any performance or fault tolerance benefits. Verified References: [JBOD], [RAID]


NEW QUESTION # 215
A server administrator implemented a new backup solution and needs to configure backup methods for remote sites. These remote sites have low bandwidth and backups must not interfere with the network during normal business hours. Which of the following methods can be used to meet these requirements? (Select two).

  • A. Snapshot
  • B. Differential
  • C. Synthetic full
  • D. Open file
  • E. Cloud
  • F. Archive

Answer: B,F

Explanation:
Archive is a method of storing historical data that is not frequently accessed or modified. Archive can reduce the amount of data that needs to be backed up and save bandwidth and storage space. Differential is a method of backing up only the data that has changed since the last full backup. Differential can also save bandwidth and storage space, as well as speed up the backup process.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12
Server Management: Server Hardware Installation and Management2, Module 2, Lesson 5


NEW QUESTION # 216
A technician has beer tasked to install a new CPU. Prior to the retaliation the server must be configured.
Which of the following should the technician update?

  • A. The HBA
  • B. The BIOS
  • C. The backplane
  • D. The RAID card

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that controls the initialization and booting of a server. It also provides settings for the CPU, such as speed, voltage, and temperature. Updating the BIOS can improve the performance and compatibility of the CPU and other hardware components. Verified References: [BIOS],
[CPU]


NEW QUESTION # 217
A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?

  • A. A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.
  • B. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested a retransmission of the write from the controller
  • C. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible
  • D. A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.backblaze.com/blog/what-smart-stats-indicate-hard-drive-failures/


NEW QUESTION # 218
A remote physical server is unable to communicate to the network through the available NICs, which were misconfigured. However, the server administrator is still able to configure the server remotely. Which of the following connection types is the server administrator using to access the server?

  • A. Crash cart access
  • B. RDP connection
  • C. Virtual administrator console
  • D. Out-of-band management
  • E. Local KVM setup

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The connection type that the server administrator is using to access the server remotely is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server through a dedicated network interface or port that is separate from the regular data network. Out-of-band management allows administrators to perform tasks such as rebooting, configuring, troubleshooting, or updating a server even if the server is offline or unresponsive through the regular network. Out-of-band management can use protocols such as IPMI, iLO, DRAC, or BMC. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/out-of-band-management


NEW QUESTION # 219
The management team has mandated the encryption of all server administration traffic. Which of the following should MOST likely be implemented?

  • A. SSH
  • B. SELinux
  • C. VPN
  • D. FTPS

Answer: A

Explanation:
SSH stands for Secure Shell and it is a network protocol that provides encrypted and authenticated communication between two hosts. SSH can be used to remotely access and administer a server using a command-line interface or a graphical user interface. SSH can ensure the encryption of all server administration traffic, which can prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing by unauthorized parties. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.4)


NEW QUESTION # 220
A developer is creating a web application that will contain five web nodes. The developer's main goal is to ensure the application is always available to the end users. Which of the following should the developer use when designing the web application?

  • A. Network address translation
  • B. Link aggregation
  • C. Round robin
  • D. Bridged networking

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Round robin is a load balancing technique that distributes requests among multiple web nodes in a circular order. It ensures that each web node receives an equal amount of requests and improves the availability and performance of the web application. Verified References: [Round robin], [Load balancing]


NEW QUESTION # 221
An administrator is tasked with building an environment consisting of four servers that can each serve the same website. Which of the following concepts is described?

  • A. Overprovisioning
  • B. Network teaming
  • C. Load balancing
  • D. Direct access

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Load balancing is a concept that distributes the workload across multiple servers or other resources to optimize performance, availability, and scalability. Load balancing can be implemented at different layers of the network, such as the application layer, the transport layer, or the network layer. Load balancing can use various algorithms or methods to determine how to distribute the traffic, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution.
References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 241.


NEW QUESTION # 222
Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?

  • A. Perpetual
  • B. Subscription-based
  • C. Site-based
  • D. Per socket

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Cloud software licensing refers to the process of managing and storing software licenses in the cloud. The benefits of cloud software licensing models are vast. The main and most attractive benefit has to do with the ease of use for software vendors and the ability to provide customizable cloud software license management based on customer needs and desires . Cloud-based licensing gives software developers and vendors the opportunity to deliver software easily and quickly and gives customers full control over their licenses, their analytics, and more1. Cloud based licensing gives software sellers the ability to add subscription models to their roster of services1. Subscription models are one of the most popular forms of licensing today1. Users sign up for a subscription (often based on various options and levels of use, features, etc.) and receive their licenses instantly1. References: 1 Everything You Need to Know about Cloud Licensing | Thales


NEW QUESTION # 223
A server administrator is assigning an internally routable IPv6 unique local address to servers in a datacenter. Which of the following network addresses should the administrator assign to a server?

  • A. 192.168.0.10
  • B. 2901:4868:4800::8844
  • C. fd00:1348:4ef0:1ab9::1fd4
  • D. 10.40.251.33

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 224
A server is experiencing heavy disk thrashing due to a need for more memory. A manager asks the server technician to install 32GB of static RAM on the server. The technician tells the manager this is incorrect because:

  • A. the RAM used in this case is dynamic RAM.
  • B. static RAM needs a refresh cycle.
  • C. static RAM does not come in this size.
  • D. dynamic RAM is used for CMOS.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 225
A server administrator has configured a web server. Which of the following does the administrator need to install to make the website trusted?

  • A. DNS
  • B. LDAP
  • C. SSL
  • D. PKI

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.csoonline.com/article/3400836/what-is-pki-and-how-it-secures-just-about-everything-online.html


NEW QUESTION # 226
A technician is connecting a Linux server to a share on a NAS. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate native protocol to use for this task?

  • A. SFTP
  • B. CIFS
  • C. NFS
  • D. FTP

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most appropriate native protocol to use for connecting a Linux server to a share on a NAS is NFS. NFS (Network File System) is a protocol that allows file sharing and remote access over a network. NFS is designed for Unix-like operating systems, such as Linux, and supports features such as symbolic links, hard links, file locking, and file permissions. NFS uses mount points to attach remote file systems to local file systems, making them appear as if they are part of the local file system. NFS can provide fast and reliable access to files stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage), which is a device that provides centralized storage for network devices.


NEW QUESTION # 227
A technician is trying to determine the reason why a Linux server is not communicating on a network. The returned network configuration is as follows:
eth0: flags=4163<UP, BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST> mtu 1500
inet 127.0.0.1 network 255.255.0.0 broadcast 127.0.0.1
Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?

  • A. The server is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server
  • B. The server is configured to use DHCP, but the DHCP server is sending an incorrect subnet mask
  • C. The server is configured to use DHCP, but the DHCP server is sending an incorrect MTU setting
  • D. The server is configured to use DHCP on a network that has multiple scope options

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The reason why the Linux server is not communicating on a network is that it is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a client device to obtain an IP address and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server automatically. However, if there is no DHCP server on the network, the client device will not be able to obtain a valid IP address and will assign itself a link-local address instead. A link-local address is an IP address that is only valid within a local network segment and cannot be used for communication outside of it. A link-local address has a prefix of 169.254/16 in IPv4 or fe80::/10 in IPv6. In this case, the Linux server has assigned itself a link-local address of 127.0.0.1, which is also known as the loopback address. The loopback address is used for testing and troubleshooting purposes and refers to the device itself. It cannot be used for communication with other devices on the network.


NEW QUESTION # 228
A remote physical server is unable to communicate to the network through the available NICs, which were misconfigured. However, the server administrator is still able to configure the server remotely. Which of the following connection types is the server administrator using to access the server?

  • A. Crash cart access
  • B. RDP connection
  • C. Virtual administrator console
  • D. Out-of-band management
  • E. Local KVM setup

Answer: D

Explanation:
The connection type that the server administrator is using to access the server remotely is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server through a dedicated network interface or port that is separate from the regular data network. Out-of-band management allows administrators to perform tasks such as rebooting, configuring, troubleshooting, or updating a server even if the server is offline or unresponsive through the regular network. Out-of-band management can use protocols such as IPMI, iLO, DRAC, or BMC. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/out-of-band-management


NEW QUESTION # 229
An administrator has been asked to verify that all traffic egressing from a company is secured. The administrator confirms all the information that is sent over the network is encrypted. Which of the following describes the type of traffic being encrypted?

  • A. Off-site data
  • B. Secure FTP
  • C. Network encapsulation
  • D. Data in transit

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Data in transit is data that is being transferred over a network, such as the internet. It can be encrypted to protect it from unauthorized access or tampering. Verified References: [Data in transit], [Encryption]


NEW QUESTION # 230
......

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