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CompTIA 220-1102 or CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 is a certification exam that validates an individual's knowledge and skills in handling advanced troubleshooting, security, and networking issues. It is a part of the CompTIA A+ certification series and is the second exam in the series. 220-1102 exam is designed to test the candidates' proficiency in installing, configuring, and managing operating systems, software, and hardware devices.
CompTIA 220-1102 exam is an essential component of the CompTIA A+ certification and covers advanced topics related to computer hardware, software, networking, and security. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 certification is widely recognized in the IT industry and is considered a benchmark for entry-level IT professionals seeking a career in IT support or technical assistance. Passing 220-1102 exam requires in-depth knowledge and skills related to installing, configuring, and maintaining operating systems, troubleshooting software and hardware issues, and implementing security measures to protect against cyber threats.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Ann, a CEO, has purchased a new consumer-class tablet for personal use, but she is unable to connect it to the company's wireless network. All the corporate laptops are connecting without issue. She has asked you to assist with getting the device online.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the network diagrams and device configurations to determine the cause of the problem and resolve any discovered issues.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation below:
Explanation
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
Click on 802.11 and Select ac
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated Click on SSID and select CORP Graphical user interface, text, application, Teams Description automatically generated
Click on Frequency and select 5GHz
A picture containing background pattern Description automatically generated
At Wireless Security Mode, Click on Security Mode
Graphical user interface, text, application Description automatically generated
Select the WPA2
Graphical user interface, application, Teams Description automatically generated with medium confidence
Ann needs to connect to the BYOD SSID, using 2.4GHZ. The selected security method chose should be WPA PSK, and the password should be set to TotallySecret.
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 16
An organization is updating the monitors on kiosk machines. While performing the upgrade, the organization would like to remove physical input devices. Which of the following utilities in the Control Panel can be used to turn on the on-screen keyboard to replace the physical input devices?
- A. Devices and Printers
- B. Programs and Features
- C. Device Manager
- D. Ease of Access
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Ease of Access is a utility in the Control Panel that allows users to adjust various accessibility settings on Windows, such as the on-screen keyboard, magnifier, narrator, high contrast, etc. The on-screen keyboard can be turned on by going to Ease of Access > Keyboard and toggling the switch to On12. Alternatively, the on-screen keyboard can be opened by pressing Windows + Ctrl + O keys or by typing osk.exe in the Run dialog box3.
References: 1 Use the On-Screen Keyboard (OSK) to
type(https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/use-the-on-screen-keyboard-osk-to-type-ecbb5e08-5b4e-d8c8 to Enable or Disable the On-Screen Keyboard in Windows 10 - Lifewire(https://www.lifewire.com/enable-or-disable-on-screen-keyboard-in-windows-10-5180667)3 On-Screen Keyboard Settings, Tips and Tricks in Windows
11/10(https://www.thewindowsclub.com/windows-onscreen-keyboard).
NEW QUESTION # 17
A user is trying to use a third-party USB adapter but is experiencing connection issues. Which of the following tools should the technician use to resolve this issue?
- A. diskmgmt.msc
- B. de vmgmt. msc
- C. taskschd.msc
- D. eventvwr.msc
Answer: B
Explanation:
The tool that the technician should use to resolve the connection issues with the third-party USB adapter is devmgmt.msc. Devmgmt.msc is a command that opens the Device Manager, which is a utility that allows users to view and manage the hardware devices and drivers installed on a computer. The technician can use the Device Manager to check the status, properties and compatibility of the USB adapter and its driver, and perform actions such as updating, uninstalling or reinstalling the driver, enabling or disabling the device, or scanning for hardware changes. Taskschd.msc is a command that opens the Task Scheduler, which is a utility that allows users to create and manage tasks that run automatically at specified times or events. The Task Scheduler is not relevant or useful for resolving connection issues with the USB adapter. Eventvwr.msc is a command that opens the Event Viewer, which is a utility that allows users to view and monitor the system logs and events. The Event Viewer may provide some information or clues about the connection issues with the USB adapter, but it does not allow users to manage or troubleshoot the device or its driver directly. Diskmgmt.msc is a command that opens the Disk Management, which is a utility that allows users to view and manage the disk drives and partitions on a computer. The Disk Management is not relevant or useful for resolving connection issues with the USB adapter. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.6
NEW QUESTION # 18
A technician sees a file that is requesting payment to a cryptocurrency address. Which of the following should the technician do first?
- A. Update the antivirus software definitions.
- B. Disable System Restore.
- C. Boot to safe mode.
- D. Quarantine the computer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Quarantining the computer means isolating it from the network and other devices to prevent the spread of malware or ransomware. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the files on a computer and demands payment (usually in cryptocurrency) to restore them. If a technician sees a file that is requesting payment to a cryptocurrency address, it is likely that the computer has been infected by ransomware. Quarantining the computer should be the first step to contain the infection and prevent further damage. Disabling System Restore, updating the antivirus software definitions, and booting to safe mode are not steps that should be done before quarantining the computer.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A user is trying to use proprietary software, but it crashes intermittently. The user notices that the desktop is displaying a "low memory" warning message. Upon restarting the desktop, the issue persists. Which of the following should a technician do next to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Reimage the computer.
- B. Reinstall and update the failing software.
- C. Replace the system RAM.
- D. Decrease the page file size.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely cause of the intermittent crashes is that the proprietary software is incompatible, outdated, or corrupted. Reinstalling and updating the software can fix these issues and ensure the software runs smoothly.
Reimaging the computer or replacing the system RAM are too drastic and unnecessary steps. Decreasing the page file size can worsen the low memory problem and affect the performance of other applications.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A user reports that antivirus software indicates a computer is infected with viruses. The user thinks this happened white browsing the internet. The technician does not recognize the interface with which the antivirus message is presented. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take?
- A. Call the phone number displayed in the interface of the antivirus removal tool
- B. Proceed with initiating a full scan and removal of the viruses using the presented interface
- C. Shut down the infected computer and swap it with another computer
- D. Investigate what the interface is and what triggered it to pop up
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 21
A technician is replacing the processor in a desktop computer prior to opening the computer, the technician wants to ensure the internal components are protected. Which of the following safety procedures would BEST protect the components in the PC? (Select TWO).
- A. Ensuring proper ventilation
- B. Placing the PSU in an antistatic bag
- C. Disconnecting the computer from the power source
- D. Ensuring equipment is grounded
- E. Utilizing an ESD strap
- F. Removing dust from the ventilation fans
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Explanation
The two safety procedures that would best protect the components in the PC are:
Utilizing an ESD strap
Placing the PSU in an antistatic bag
https://www.professormesser.com/free-a-plus-training/220-902/computer-safety-procedures-2/
https://www.skillsoft.com/course/comptia-a-core-2-safety-procedures-environmental-impacts-cbdf0f2c-61c0-4f4
NEW QUESTION # 22
A technician is installing new software on a macOS computer. Which of the following file types will the technician MOST likely use?
- A. .exe
- B. .deb
- C. .app
- D. .vbs
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 23
A company wants to remove information from past users' hard drives in order to reuse the hard drives Witch of the following is the MOST secure method
- A. Performing a quick format
- B. Using disk-wiping software
- C. Reinstalling Windows
- D. Deleting all files from command-line interface
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Using disk-wiping software is the most secure method for removing information from past users' hard drives in order to reuse the hard drives. Disk-wiping software can help to ensure that all data on the hard drive is completely erased and cannot be recovered.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A technician is partitioning a hard disk. The five primary partitions should contain 4TB of free space. Which of the following partition styles should the technician use to partition the device?
- A. GPT
- B. EFS
- C. FAT32
- D. MBR
Answer: A
Explanation:
GPT is the correct answer for this question. GPT stands for GUID Partition Table, and it is a partition style that supports up to 128 primary partitions and up to 18 exabytes of disk size per partition. GPT also uses a unique identifier for each partition and provides better data protection and recovery. GPT is suitable for partitioning a hard disk that has five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. EFS, MBR, and FAT32 are not correct answers for this question. EFS stands for Encrypting File System, and it is a feature that allows encrypting files and folders on NTFS volumes. EFS is not a partition style, but rather a file system attribute. MBR stands for Master Boot Record, and it is an older partition style that supports up to four primary partitions and up to 2TB of disk size per partition. MBR cannot handle five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32, and it is a file system that supports up to 32GB of disk size per partition and up to 4GB of file size. FAT32 is not a partition style, but rather a file system type. Reference:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14 CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam ..., page 105
NEW QUESTION # 25
A systems administrator is creating periodic backups of a folder on a Microsoft Windows machine. The source data is very dynamic, and files are either added or deleted regularly. Which of the following utilities can be used to 'mirror the source data for the backup?
- A. xcopy
- B. copy
- C. robocopy
- D. Copy-Item
Answer: C
Explanation:
Robocopy is a command-line utility that can be used to mirror the source data for the backup. It can copy files and folders with various options, such as copying only changed files, preserving attributes and permissions, and retrying failed copies. Robocopy is more powerful and flexible than copy or xcopy, which are simpler commands that can only copy files and folders without mirroring or other advanced features. Copy-Item is a PowerShell cmdlet that can also copy files and folders, but it is not a native Windows utility and it requires PowerShell to run1.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A technician is reimaging a desktop PC. The technician connects the PC to the network and powers it on. The technician attempts to boot the computer via the NIC to image the computer, but this method does not work. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the computer is unable to boot into the imaging system via the network?
- A. The computer's NIC is faulty.
- B. The computer's CMOS battery failed.
- C. The PXE boot option has not been enabled
- D. The Ethernet cable the technician is using to connect the desktop to the network is faulty.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely reason the computer is unable to boot into the imaging system via the network is that the PXE boot option has not been enabled. PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is an environment that allows computers to boot up over the network, instead of from a local disk. In order for this to work, the PXE boot option must be enabled in the computer's BIOS settings. As stated in the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, technicians should know how to enable PXE in BIOS to enable network booting on a computer.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A technician has verified a computer is infected with malware. The technician isolates the system and updates the anti-malware software. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. Run repeated remediation scans until the malware is removed.
- B. Run one scan and schedule future scans.
- C. Back up the uninfected files and reimage the computer.
- D. Restore the clean backup copies of the infected files.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Malware is malicious software that can cause damage or harm to a computer system or network4. A technician has verified a computer is infected with malware by observing unusual behavior, such as slow performance, pop-ups, or unwanted ads. The technician isolates the system and updates the anti-malware software to prevent further infection or spread of the malware. The next step is to run repeated remediation scans until the malware is removed. A remediation scan is a scan that detects and removes malware from the system. Running one scan may not be enough to remove all traces of malware, as some malware may hide or regenerate itself.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Before leaving work, a user wants to see the traffic conditions for the commute home. Which of the following tools can the user employ to schedule the browser to automatically launch a traffic website at 4:45 p.m.?
- A. perfmon.msc
- B. taskschd.msc
- C. lusrmgr.msc
- D. Eventvwr.msc
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The user can use the Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc) to schedule the browser to automatically launch a traffic website at 4:45 p.m. The Task Scheduler is a tool in Windows that allows users to schedule tasks to run automatically at specified times or in response to certain events.
NEW QUESTION # 29
A Linux technician needs a filesystem type that meets the following requirements:
. All changes are tracked.
. The possibility of file corruption is reduced.
Data recovery is easy.
Which of the following filesystem types best meets these requirements?
- A. ext3
- B. FAT32
- C. exFAT
- D. NTFS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The ext3 file system is a Linux native file system that meets the requirements of the question. It has the following features:
All changes are tracked. The ext3 file system uses a journaling mechanism that records all changes to the file system metadata in a special log called the journal before applying them to the actual file system. This ensures that the file system can be restored to a consistent state in case of a power failure or system crash12.
The possibility of file corruption is reduced. The journaling feature of ext3 also reduces the possibility of file corruption, as it avoids the need for a full file system check after an unclean shutdown. The file system can be quickly replayed from the journal and any inconsistencies can be fixed12.
Data recovery is easy. The ext3 file system supports undeletion of files using tools such as ext3grep or extundelete, which can scan the file system for deleted inodes and attempt to recover the data blocks associated with them34.
References:
1: Introduction to Linux File System [Structure and Types] - MiniTool1 2: 7 Ways to Determine the File System Type in Linux (Ext2, Ext3 or Ext4) - Tecmint3 3: How to Recover Deleted Files in Linux with ext3grep 4: How to Recover Deleted Files from ext3 Partitions
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following should be used to secure a device from known exploits?
- A. Cross-site scripting
- B. Operating system updates
- C. Encryption
- D. Remote wipe
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Operating system updates are used to secure a device from known exploits. Operating system updates are patches or fixes that are released by the vendor to address security vulnerabilities, bugs, or performance issues.
Operating system updates can also provide new features or enhancements to the device. It is important to keep the operating system updated to prevent attackers from exploiting known flaws or weaknesses.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A technician receives a call (rom a user who is having issues with an application. To best understand the issue, the technician simultaneously views the user's screen with the user. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this task?
- A. VNC
- B. RDP
- C. VPN
- D. SSH
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a protocol that allows a technician to simultaneously view and control a user's screen remotely. VNC uses a server-client model, where the user's computer runs a VNC server and the technician's computer runs a VNC client. VNC can work across different platforms and operating systems3.
SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that allows a technician to access a user's command-line interface remotely, but not their graphical user interface. VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, but does not allow screen sharing. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a protocol that allows a technician to access a user's desktop remotely, but not simultaneously with the user.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A user's mobile phone has become sluggish A systems administrator discovered several malicious applications on the device and reset the phone. The administrator installed MDM software. Which of the following should the administrator do to help secure the device against this threat in the future? (Select TWO).
- A. Disable biometric authentication
- B. Block a third-party application installation
- C. Enable developer mode
- D. Require a PIN on the unlock screen
- E. Prevent GPS spoofing
- F. Prevent a device root
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
To help secure the device against this threat in the future, the administrator should require a PIN on the unlock screen and block a third-party application installation. Requiring a PIN on the unlock screen can help to prevent unauthorized access to the device, while blocking third-party application installation can help to prevent malicious applications from being installed on the device.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following must be maintained throughout the forensic evidence life cycle when dealing with a piece of evidence?
- A. Chain of custody
- B. Information management
- C. Security policy
- D. Acceptable use
Answer: A
Explanation:
The aspect of forensic evidence life cycle that must be maintained when dealing with a piece of evidence is chain of custody. This is because chain of custody is the documentation of the movement of evidence from the time it is collected to the time it is presented in court, and it is important to maintain the integrity of the evidence
NEW QUESTION # 34
A manager called the help desk to ask for assistance with creating a more secure environment for the finance department- which resides in a non-domain environment. Which of the following would be the BEST method to protect against unauthorized use?
- A. Using screen locks
- B. Disabling unnecessary services
- C. Implementing password expiration
- D. Restricting user permissions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Restricting user permissions is a method of creating a more secure environment for the finance department in a non-domain environment. This means that users will only have access to the files and resources that they need to perform their tasks and will not be able to modify or delete other files or settings that could compromise security or functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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