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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
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| Topic 2 |
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| Topic 3 |
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| Topic 4 |
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| Topic 5 |
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| Topic 6 |
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| Topic 7 |
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NEW QUESTION # 21
Which action is a required response to an identified residual risk?
- A. The organization shall change practices to avoid the risk occurring
- B. By default, it shall be controlled by information security awareness and training
- C. Top management shall delegate its treatment to risk owners
- D. It shall be reviewed by the risk owner to consider acceptance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (e) specifies:
"The organization shall obtain risk owners' approval of the information security risk treatment plan and acceptance of the residual information security risks." This confirms that residual risks - those remaining after risk treatment - must be reviewed and formally accepted by the designated risk owner. Option A is incorrect; awareness training is not a default control for all residual risks. Option B misrepresents leadership responsibility; top management ensures processes exist, but risk ownersformally approve residual risk. Option D (avoiding risk) is a treatment option, not the mandated requirement for residual risks.
Thus, the required response isC: Review and acceptance by the risk owner.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which item is required to be considered when defining the scope and boundaries of the information security management system?
- A. The regular activities necessary to maintain and improve the ISMS
- B. The level of quality to which the ISMS must adhere
- C. The dependencies between activities performed by the organization
- D. The lessons learned from the information security experiences of other organizations
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 4.3 (Determining the scope of the ISMS) requires consideration of:
"the external and internal issues referred to in 4.1; the requirements referred to in 4.2; and interfaces and dependencies between activities performed by the organization, and those that are performed by other organizations." This confirms that dependencies between activities are a required factor when defining scope. Options B (quality levels), C (lessons learned), and D (regular activities for improvement) are not scope requirements, though they may be relevant in planning or improvement processes.
Thus, the verified answer is A: Dependencies between activities performed by the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which action must top management take to provide evidence of its commitment to the establishment, operation and improvement of the ISMS?
- A. Communicating feedback from interested parties to the organization
- B. Ensuring information security objectives are established
- C. Implementing the actions from internal audits
- D. Producing a risk assessment report
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 5.1 (Leadership and Commitment) requires top management to demonstrate leadership by:
* "ensuring the information security policy and the information security objectives are established and are compatible with the strategic direction of the organization;"
* "ensuring the integration of the ISMS requirements into the organization's processes;"
* "ensuring that the resources needed for the ISMS are available;"
Among the options, the one explicitly mandated isensuring that information security objectives are established. Risk assessments (C) and implementing audit actions (D) are responsibilities of management but not the direct leadership evidence required in Clause 5.1. Communicating interested party feedback (A) is relevant but not specifically cited as leadership evidence. Thus, the verified answer isB.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
"Information security, cybersecurity and privacy protection - [ ? ]" is the title of ISO/IEC 27005.
- A. Guidance on managing information security risks
- B. Information security management systems - Requirements
- C. Guidelines for information security management systems auditing
- D. Information security controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27005 standards:
ISO/IEC 27005:2022 is titled:
"Information security, cybersecurity and privacy protection - Guidance on managing information security risks." This standard provides structured methodologies for identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks, in alignment with ISO/IEC 27001's risk management requirements (Clause 6.1.2 and 6.1.3). It supports organizations in implementing the risk management process that underpins an ISMS. Options A and B are titles of other ISO standards (ISO/IEC 27007 for auditing, ISO/IEC 27001 for requirements). Option D refers to ISO/IEC 27002 (controls).
Thus, the correct answer isC: Guidance on managing information security risks.
NEW QUESTION # 25
What is required to be reported by the Information security event reporting control?
- A. Unauthorized access
- B. Information disclosure
- C. Asset disposal
- D. Observed or suspected events
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A, control 6.8 (Information security event reporting) specifies:
"Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible. The organization should require all employees and contractors to note and report any observed or suspected information security events." This wording confirms that the required reporting covers"observed or suspected events."Specific event types like information disclosure (A) or unauthorized access (B) are examples but not the broad requirement.
Asset disposal (C) is addressed separately under equipment lifecycle controls (Annex A.7.14).
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD: Observed or suspected events.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which statement is a factor that will influence the implementation of the information security management system?
- A. The ISMS will be scaled to the controls according to the needs of the organization
- B. The ISMS will encompass all controls specified within ISO/IEC 27001
- C. The ISMS will be separate from the organization's overall management structure
- D. The ISMS will be operated as an independent process within the organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 makes clear that the ISMS is intended to be tailored to the organization. The standard states: " This document also includes requirements for the assessment and treatment of information security risks tailored to the needs of the organization. The requirements set out in this document are generic and are intended to be applicable to all organizations regardless of type, size or nature." This means implementation is scaled based on each organization's risk, context, and needs, not a fixed one-size-fits-all set of activities or controls. Clause 6.1.3 further reinforces that control selection is flexible and risk-driven: " Organizations can design controls as required or identify them from any source," and "Annex A contains a list of possible information security controls... The information security controls listed in Annex A are not exhaustive and additional information security controls can be included if needed." Together, these extracts verify that the ISMS implementation is influenced by and scaled to the organization's needs and selected controls, not separated from management processes (A, D) nor mandated to include "all controls" (B).
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which statement describes a requirement for information security objectives?
- A. They shall be contractually transferred to third parties
- B. They shall all be measurable
- C. They shall be reviewed at least annually
- D. They shall be consistent with the information security policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 6.2 (Information security objectives) requires that objectives:
* "be consistent with the information security policy"
* "be measurable (if practicable)"
* "take into account applicable information security requirements"
* "be monitored, communicated, and updated as appropriate."
From this, option A is correct since consistency with policy is an explicit requirement. Option B is incorrect because the standard allows objectives to be measurable "if practicable" (not mandatory for all). Option C is incorrect-objectives are not transferred contractually to third parties, though third-party agreements may include security requirements. Option D is incorrect because the standard requires regular review "as appropriate," not a fixed annual cycle.
Thus, the verified requirement isA: They shall be consistent with the information security policy.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is required to be considered when selecting appropriate information security risk treatment options?
- A. Criteria for accepting identified risks
- B. Only risk controls in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001
- C. Criteria for performing risk assessments
- D. Only risk controls in ISO/IEC 27002
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (c) requires organizations to:
"compare the controls determined in 6.1.3 b) with those in Annex A and verify that no necessary control has been omitted; and prepare a Statement of Applicability." It also requires organizations to select risk treatment options considering "the organization's risk acceptance criteria." This shows thatrisk acceptance criteriaare a fundamental factor when selecting risk treatment options.
Options C and D are incorrect because Annex A and ISO/IEC 27002 are reference sets, not the sole sources of controls - organizations can design their own. Criteria for performing risk assessments (B) are part of 6.1.2 (risk assessment process), not risk treatment.
Thus, the correct requirement isA: Criteria for accepting identified risks.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following statements about the differences between an internal audit and a certification audit is true?
An internal audit is conducted at planned intervals and a certification audit is conducted annually An internal audit is known as a 1st party audit and a certification audit is known as a 3rd party audit
- A. Only 1 is true
- B. Neither 1 or 2 is true
- C. Only 2 is true
- D. Both 1 and 2 are true
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 9.2 requires internal audits to be conducted at planned intervals, but it does not specify an annual frequency. Certification audits, under ISO/IEC 17021 rules, typically occur on a 3-year cycle with annual surveillance, not strictly "annually." This makes statement 1 inaccurate.
Audit types are defined in ISO/IEC 19011:
First-party audits: conducted internally by or on behalf of the organization (internal audits).
Third-party audits: conducted by independent external certification bodies.
Thus, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the accurate choice is B: Only 2 is true.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
According to ISO/IEC 27000, the definition of risk [?] is a "process to comprehend the nature of risk and to determine the level of risk."
- A. Assessment
- B. Management
- C. Evaluation
- D. Analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:
ISO/IEC 27000 defines:
* Risk analysis: "process to comprehend the nature of risk and to determine the level of risk" (Clause 3.58).
* Risk assessment: the overall process of risk identification, risk analysis, and risk evaluation.
* Risk evaluation: compares results of risk analysis against risk criteria to determine priority.
* Risk management: coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk.
Therefore, the missing word in the given definition is"analysis".
This is important for ISMS implementation: organizations must understand the distinctions. Risk analysis is the core technical evaluation stage, while assessment is the broader process including evaluation, and management refers to the overall governance of risks.
Thus, the correct verified answer isB: Analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which statement describes a purpose of monitoring, measurement, analysis and evaluation according to ISO
/IEC 27001?
- A. To monitor the use of information assets
- B. To track the use of outsourced processes
- C. To evaluate information security performance
- D. To ensure that employees and contractors are competent
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.1 requires:
"The organization shall evaluate the information security performance and the effectiveness of the information security management system." This is the central purpose of monitoring, measurement, analysis, and evaluation. Competence (B) is covered under Clause 7.2. Monitoring use of assets (C) and outsourced processes (D) may be done, but they are not the formal purpose described in the standard. Instead, performance evaluation ensures the ISMS continues to meet intended outcomes and supports continual improvement.
Thus, the verified purpose is A: To evaluate information security performance.
NEW QUESTION # 32
What is a requirement for a corrective action made in response to a nonconformity?
- A. They are appropriate to the effects of the nonconformity
- B. They are proportionate to the likelihood of the nonconformity recurring
- C. They do NOT change the organization's information security policies
- D. They always eliminate the cause of the nonconformity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 10.1 (Nonconformity and corrective action) specifies:
"The organization shall react to the nonconformity and, as applicable: take action to control and correct it; deal with the consequences; evaluate the need for action to eliminate the cause(s)...
Corrective actions shall be appropriate to the effects of the nonconformities encountered." This confirms optionB. Option A is inaccurate-ISO requires actions appropriate toeffects, not probability alone. Option C is false-policies may need updating to correct nonconformities. Option D is incorrect, as not every cause can always be eliminated; residual issues may exist.
Thus, the verified requirement isB.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?
- A. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
- B. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
- C. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
- D. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 34
When are the information security policies required to be reviewed, according to the Policies for information security control?
- A. According to a schedule defined by the Certification Body
- B. At planned intervals and if significant changes occur
- C. Annually
- D. Every six months
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) specifies:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties, and reviewed at planned intervals and if significant changes occur." This clearly identifies the review frequency requirement: planned intervalsandwhenever there are significant changes. Options A and B (six-monthly or annually) are not prescribed by ISO - timing is left to the organization. Option C is also wrong, since Certification Bodies do not dictate policy review schedules.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 35
To whom are the information security policies required to be communicated, according to the control in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Employees within the scope of the ISMS
- B. Only staff with accountability for ISMS operation
- C. Top management
- D. Relevant personnel and relevant interested parties
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) clearly specifies:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties..." This means the communication obligation is not limited to top management (A) or only ISMS staff (B), nor does it stop at employees only (C). Instead, ISO/IEC 27001/27002 mandate a broader scope: allrelevant personnel and relevant interested partiesmust be informed. This ensures both internal stakeholders (employees, contractors, temporary staff) and external interested parties (suppliers, partners, regulators, customers, etc.) receive the right policy communications where applicable. Therefore, the correct and verified answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 36
In which clause would the requirements for internal audit be found?
- A. Performance Evaluation
- B. Improvement
- C. Operation
- D. Planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
The requirements for internal audit are explicitly placed inClause 9.2 (Performance Evaluation)of ISO/IEC
27001:2022. The standard requires:
* "The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals to provide information on whether the information security management system... conforms to the organization's own requirements... and to the requirements of this document." (9.2.1)
* "The organization shall plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)..." (9.2.2) This clause clearly falls underPerformance Evaluation (Clause 9), not Planning (Clause 6), Operation (Clause 8), or Improvement (Clause 10). Therefore, the correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which activity is an operational planning and control requirement?
- A. Perform information security risk assessments at planned intervals
- B. Scheduling of second party audits
- C. Document information security objectives
- D. Review the consequences of unintended changes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 8.1 (Operational planning and control) requires organizations to:
"Ensure that changes are controlled. The organization shall review the consequences of unintended changes, taking action to mitigate any adverse effects, as necessary." This requirement ensures that operational processes are planned, controlled, and adjusted where unexpected changes occur. Risk assessments (B) are covered in Clause 6.1.2 (Planning), not operations. Scheduling second-party audits (C) is not an ISMS requirement but part of supplier/customer arrangements. Documenting objectives (D) belongs to Clause 6.2 (Planning).
Thus, the required operational planning and control activity is A: Review the consequences of unintended changes.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which action must top management take to provide evidence of its commitment to the establishment, operation and improvement of the ISMS?
- A. Communicating feedback from interested parties to the organization
- B. Ensuring information security objectives are established
- C. Implementing the actions from internal audits
- D. Producing a risk assessment report
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 5.1 (Leadership and Commitment) requires top management to demonstrate leadership by:
* "ensuring the information security policy and the information security objectives are established and are compatible with the strategic direction of the organization;"
* "ensuring the integration of the ISMS requirements into the organization's processes;"
* "ensuring that the resources needed for the ISMS are available;"
Among the options, the one explicitly mandated isensuring that information security objectives are established. Risk assessments (C) and implementing audit actions (D) are responsibilities of management but not the direct leadership evidence required in Clause 5.1. Communicating interested party feedback (A) is relevant but not specifically cited as leadership evidence. Thus, the verified answer isB.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which action is an organization required to take to ensure that personnel are competent to perform their assigned tasks within the ISMS?
- A. Ensure all personnel are trained to ISO/IEC 27001 Foundation level
- B. Ensure that the controls for compliance with legal and contractual requirements are implemented
- C. Identify products which could be used in the organization to improve ISMS performance and effectiveness
- D. Hold up-to-date records on training, skills, experience and qualifications
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 7.2 (Competence) requires the organization to:
* "determine the necessary competence of person(s) doing work under its control that affects its information security performance;"
* "ensure that these persons are competent on the basis of appropriate education, training, or experience;"
* "retain appropriate documented information as evidence of competence." This makesholding up-to-date records on training, skills, experience, and qualifications(D) the correct answer. Option A is irrelevant to competence. Option B is incorrect since ISO does not require Foundation- level training - competence is context-based. Option C is related to compliance but does not ensure individual competence.
Thus, the verified correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which information is required to be included in the Statement of Applicability?
- A. The criteria against which risk will be evaluated
- B. The risk assessment approach of the organization
- C. The scope and boundaries of the ISMS
- D. The justification for including each information security control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (d) requires that the organization"produce a Statement of Applicability that contains the necessary controls (see Annex A), and justification for inclusions, whether they are implemented or not, and the justification for exclusions." This is the defining requirement of the SoA: it documents which Annex A controls are relevant, which are implemented, and the justification for inclusion/exclusion. While the ISMS scope (A) is documented in Clause 4.3, and risk evaluation criteria (C) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, these do not belong in the SoA. The SoA does not describe the full risk assessment approach (B); that is part of the risk assessment methodology.
Therefore, the mandatory requirement for the SoA isjustification for including (or excluding) each information security control.
NEW QUESTION # 41
In an audit, what is the definition of an observation?
- A. A conformity to the standard where there is an opportunity for improvement
- B. An issue raised by an interested party
- C. An issue excluded from the scope of the standard
- D. A non-fulfilment of a requirement of ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 mandates internal audits (Clause 9.2) and continual improvement (Clause 10.1) but doesnot define the specific audit term "observation." However, the audit framework in 9.2 requires an audit programme and impartial auditors, and management review inputs include "feedback on the information security performance including trends in... audit results" and "opportunities for continual improvement
." The companion implementation guidance (ISO/IEC 27002) reinforces the concept ofopportunities for improvementin the review of policies: "The reviews should include assessing opportunities for improvement and the need for changes to the approach to information security..." In practical ISO audit usage (aligned with ISO 19011 guidance referenced in the Study Guide), anobservationis a recorded conformity where improvement is advisable-commonly termed an Opportunity for Improvement (OFI). The Study Guide's internal audit section emphasizes running an audit programme to identify "potential areas of weakness or non-compliance," supporting the notion of recording improvement opportunities alongside nonconformities. Therefore, within ISO/IEC 27001 audit practice, the best-fit definition isB: a conformity where there is an opportunity for improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 42
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