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Best Quality CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Questions
CompTIA CySA+ certification exam focuses on the development of technical skills required to prevent, detect, and respond to cybersecurity threats. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, incident response, security operations and monitoring, and compliance and governance. CS0-003 exam requires candidates to demonstrate their knowledge of these topics through multiple-choice questions and performance-based simulations.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system?
- A. Number of exploits by tactic
- B. Quantity of intrusion attempts
- C. Mean time to detect
- D. Alert volume
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations.
Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack
NEW QUESTION # 126
A company is deploying new vulnerability scanning software to assess its systems. The current network is highly segmented, and the networking team wants to minimize the number of unique firewall rules. Which of the following scanning techniques would be most efficient to achieve the objective?
- A. Deploy agents on all systems to perform the scans.
- B. Deploy a scanner sensor on every segment and perform credentialed scans.
- C. Deploy a central scanner and perform non-credentialed scans.
- D. Deploy a cloud-based scanner and perform a network scan.
Answer: A
Explanation:
USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.
References:
* CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
* What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section "How to secure attack vectors"
* Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user "schroeder"
NEW QUESTION # 127
A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:
Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management
1. The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.
2. In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.
3. The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system.
According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A. Option D
- B. Option C
- C. Option A
- D. Option B
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official References: https://www.first.org/cvss/
NEW QUESTION # 128
A security technician is testing a solution that will prevent outside entities from spoofing the company's email domain, which is compatia.org. The testing is successful, and the security technician is prepared to fully implement the solution. Which of the following actions should the technician take to accomplish this task?
- A. AddTXT @ "v=apfl mx lnclude:_spf .comptia.org +a 11" to the web server.
- B. Add TXT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all" to the domain controller.
- C. Add TXT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia. org -all" to the DNS record.
- D. Add : XT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all" to the email server.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Adding TXT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia. org -all" to the DNS record can help to prevent outside entities from spoofing the company's email domain, which is comptia.org. This is an example of a Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record, which is a type of DNS record that specifies which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of a domain. SPF records can help to prevent spoofing by allowing the recipient mail servers to check the validity of the sender's domain against the SPF record. The "-all" at the end of the SPF record indicates that any mail server that is not listed in the SPF record is not authorized to send email for comptia.org .
NEW QUESTION # 129
An organization wants to move non-essential services into a cloud computing environment. The management team has a cost focus and would like to achieve a recovery time objective of 12 hours. Which of the following cloud recovery strategies would work best to attain the desired outcome?
- A. Configure the systems with a cold site at another cloud provider that can be used for failover.
- B. Duplicate all services in another instance and load balance between the instances.
- C. Set up a warm disaster recovery site with the same cloud provider in a different region.
- D. Establish a hot site with active replication to another region within the same cloud provider.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Setting up a warm disaster recovery site with the same cloud provider in a different region can help to achieve a recovery time objective (RTO) of 12 hours while keeping the costs low. A warm disaster recovery site is a partially configured site that has some of the essential hardware and software components ready to be activated in case of a disaster. A warm site can provide faster recovery than a cold site, which has no preconfigured components, but lower costs than a hot site, which has fully configured and replicated components. Using the same cloud provider can help to simplify the migration and synchronization processes, while using a different region can help to avoid regional outages or disasters .
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?
- A. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification
- B. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems
- C. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communication plan
- D. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies
Answer: A
Explanation:
A successful information security program consists of several key elements that align with the organization's goals and objectives, and address the risks and threats to its information assets.
Security policy implementation: This is the process of developing, documenting, and enforcing the rules and standards that govern the security of the organization's information assets. Security policies define the scope, objectives, roles, and responsibilities of the security program, as well as the acceptable use, access control, incident response, and compliance requirements for the information assets.
NEW QUESTION # 131
The management team requests monthly KPI reports on the company's cybersecurity program.
Which of the following KPIs would identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment?
- A. Employee turnover
- B. Level of preparedness
- C. Mean time to detect
- D. Intrusion attempts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mean time to detect (MTTD) is a metric that measures the average time it takes for an organization to discover or detect an incident. It is a key performance indicator in incident management and a measure of incident response capabilities. A low MTTD indicates that the organization can quickly identify security threats and minimize their impact.
NEW QUESTION # 132
Which of the following statements best describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
- A. It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases.
- B. It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves.
- C. It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies.
- D. It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications.
- E. It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of cybercriminals' adversarial behaviors based on cybercriminals' known tactics, techniques and procedures (TTPs). It helps security teams model, detect, prevent and fight cybersecurity threats by simulating cyberattacks, creating security policies, controls and incident response plans, and sharing information with other security professionals. It is an open-source project that evolves with input from a global community of cybersecurity professionals1. Reference: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM
NEW QUESTION # 133
A security analyst responds to a series of events surrounding sporadic bandwidth consumption from an endpoint device. The security analyst then identifies the following additional details:
* Bursts of network utilization occur approximately every seven days.
* The content being transferred appears to be encrypted or obfuscated.
* A separate but persistent outbound TCP connection from the host to infrastructure in a third-party cloud is in place.
* The HDD utilization on the device grows by 10GB to 12GB over the course of every seven days.
* Single file sizes are 10GB.
Which of the following describes the most likely cause of the issue?
- A. Data exfiltration
- B. System update
- C. Memory consumption
- D. Non-standard port usage
- E. Botnet participant
Answer: A
Explanation:
data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from an organization's network to an external destination, usually for malicious purposes such as espionage, sabotage, or theft. The details given in the question suggest that data exfiltration is occurring from an endpoint device. The bursts of network utilization every seven days indicate periodic data transfers. The content being transferred appears to be encrypted or obfuscated to avoid detection or analysis. The persistent outbound TCP connection from the host to infrastructure in a third-party cloud indicates a possible command and control channel for an attacker. The HDD utilization on the device grows by 10GB to 12GB over the course of every seven days, and single file sizes are 10GB, indicating that large amounts of data are being collected and compressed before being exfiltrated.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).
- A. POC availability
- B. npm identifier
- C. loCs
- D. CVE details
- E. Hostname
- F. Missing KPI
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. Reference: Server and Workstation Patch Management Policy, Section: Policy; Patch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024, Section: What is a patch management policy?
NEW QUESTION # 135
During an incident involving phishing, a security analyst needs to find the source of the malicious email.
Which of the following techniques would provide the analyst with this information?
- A. Header analysis
- B. SSL inspection
- C. Reverse engineering
- D. Packet capture
Answer: A
Explanation:
Header analysis is the technique of examining the metadata of an email, such as the sender, recipient, date, subject, and routing information. It can help to identify the source of a malicious email by revealing the IP address and domain name of the originator, as well as any spoofing or redirection attempts. References:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 240; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 249.
NEW QUESTION # 136
Several vulnerability scan reports have indicated runtime errors as the code is executing. The dashboard that lists the errors has a command-line interface for developers to check for vulnerabilities. Which of the following will enable a developer to correct this issue? (Select two).
- A. Reviewing the code
- B. Performing dynamic application security testing
- C. Implementing IDS
- D. Implementing a coding standard
- E. Fuzzing the application
- F. Debugging the code
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
Reviewing the code and debugging the code are two methods that can help a developer identify and fix runtime errors in the code. Reviewing the code involves checking the syntax, logic, and structure of the code for any errors or inconsistencies. Debugging the code involves running the code in a controlled environment and using tools such as breakpoints, watches, and logs to monitor the execution and find the source of errors.
Both methods can help improve the quality and security of the code.
NEW QUESTION # 137
A security analyst is deploying a new application in the environment.
The application needs to be integrated with several existing applications that contain SPI.
Prior to the deployment, the analyst should conduct:
- A. a tabletop exercise
- B. an application stress test.
- C. a PCI assessment
- D. a business impact analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 138
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:
Which of the following should be remediated first?
- A. Code injection
- B. XSS
- C. RFI
- D. SQL injection
Answer: D
Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. Reference: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web ..., Command line user interface * Arachni/arachni Wiki * GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
NEW QUESTION # 139
A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which of the following best describes what the security program did?
- A. Security control plane
- B. Single pane of glass
- C. Data enrichment
- D. Threat feed combination
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations. Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack
NEW QUESTION # 140
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to implement security by design, starting ...... vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. Which of the following would most likely meet the requirement?
- A. Code debugging
- B. Reverse engineering
- C. Known environment testing
- D. Dynamic application security testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is used to detect vulnerabilities in running applications, including common issues like SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. It aligns with the goal of implementing security by design.
NEW QUESTION # 141
During a cybersecurity incident, one of the web servers at the perimeter network was affected by ransomware.
Which of the following actions should be performed immediately?
- A. Shut down the server.
- B. Reimage the server
- C. Update the OS to latest version.
- D. Quarantine the server
Answer: D
Explanation:
Quarantining the server is the best action to perform immediately, as it isolates the affected server from the rest of the network and prevents the ransomware from spreading to other systems or data. Quarantining the server also preserves the evidence of the ransomware attack, which can be useful for forensic analysis and law enforcement investigation. The other actions are not as urgent as quarantining the server, as they may not stop the ransomware infection, or they may destroy valuable evidence. Shutting down the server may not remove the ransomware, and it may trigger a data deletion mechanism by the ransomware. Reimaging the server may restore its functionality, but it will also erase any traces of the ransomware and make recovery of encrypted data impossible. Updating the OS to the latest version may fix some vulnerabilities, but it will not remove the ransomware or decrypt the data. Official References:
* https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ransomware-guide
* https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Ransomware_Executive_One- Pager_and_Technical_Document-FINAL.pdf
* https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ive-been-hit-ransomware
NEW QUESTION # 142
Due to an incident involving company devices, an incident responder needs to take a mobile phone to the lab for further investigation. Which of the following tools should be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported? (Select two).
- A. Thumb drive
- B. Drive duplicator
- C. Crime scene tape
- D. Tamper-evident seal
- E. Signal-shielded bag
- F. Write blocker
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: Mobile device forensics, Section:
Acquisition
NEW QUESTION # 143
A technician is analyzing output from a popular network mapping tool for a PCI audit:
Which of the following best describes the output?
- A. The host is allowing insecure cipher suites.
- B. The host is not up or responding.
- C. The host is running excessive cipher suites.
- D. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The output shows the result of running the ssl-enum-ciphers script with Nmap, which is a tool that can scan web servers for supported SSL/TLS cipher suites. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that are used to establish secure communication between a client and a server. The output shows the cipher suites that are supported by the server, along with a letter grade (A through F) indicating the strength of the connection. The output also shows the least strength, which is the strength of the weakest cipher offered by the server. In this case, the least strength is F, which means that the server is allowing insecure cipher suites that are vulnerable to attacks or have been deprecated. For example, the output shows that the server supports SSLv3, which is an outdated and insecure protocol that is susceptible to the POODLE attack. The output also shows that the server supports RC4, which is a weak and broken stream cipher that should not be used.
Therefore, the best description of the output is that the host is allowing insecure cipher suites. The other descriptions are not accurate, as they do not reflect what the output shows. The host is not up or responding is incorrect, as the output clearly shows that the host is up and responding to the scan. The host is running excessive cipher suites is incorrect, as the output does not indicate how many cipher suites the host is running, only which ones it supports. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed is incorrect, as the output does not show anything about port 22, which is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH). The output only shows information about port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS.
NEW QUESTION # 144
Some hard disks need to be taken as evidence for further analysis during an incident response.
Which of the following procedures must be completed FIRST for this type of evidence acquisition?
- A. Execute the command #dd if-/dev/sda of=/dev/sdc bs=512 to clone the evidence data to external media to prevent any further change.
- B. Extract the hard drives from the compromised machines and then plug them into a forensics machine to apply encryption over the stored data to protect it from nonauthorized access.
- C. Perform a disk sanitization using the command #dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sdc bs=1M over the media that will receive a copy of the collected data.
- D. Build the chain-of-custody document, noting the media model, serial number, size, vendor, date, and time of acquisition.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Chain of custody should be done before taking a copy of data, because this defines what tools were used to obtain the data/who handled the copying. This is a crucial step for submitting data to court because this can help (along with hashing obv) prove the integrity of data.
NEW QUESTION # 145
A SOC analyst determined that a significant number of the reported alarms could be closed after removing the duplicates. Which of the following could help the analyst reduce the number of alarms with the least effort?
- A. API
- B. SOAR
- C. REST
- D. XDR
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) can help the SOC analyst reduce the number of alarms by automating the process of removing duplicates and managing security alerts more efficiently. SOAR platforms enable security teams to define, prioritize, and standardize response procedures, which helps in reducing the workload and improving the overall efficiency of incident response by handling repetitive and low-level tasks automatically.
NEW QUESTION # 146
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The CySA+ certification is highly valued by employers and is a key differentiator for cybersecurity professionals. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and is highly respected by organizations looking to hire skilled cybersecurity professionals. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification provides a comprehensive understanding of the latest cybersecurity trends, technologies, and threats, making it an essential certification for anyone looking to advance their career in cybersecurity.
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