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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Dimensions of Care | - Acute Care
|
| Physician Activities | - Communication
|
Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Sample Questions:
A 24-year-old woman presents with rapidly increasing lower leg pain. Less than 24 hours ago, she fell off her bicycle and had some minor abrasions. On examination, she is in severe pain and appears anxious. Local examination of her leg reveals mild discoloration with marked tenderness but no swelling in her calf. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Deep vein thrombosis
- B. Baker ' s cyst
- C. Plantaris rupture
- D. Cellulitis
- E. Necrotizing fasciitis
Correct Answer: E 🗳️
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A 46-year-old woman with a palpable breast lump underwent diagnostic mammography that revealed a suspicious mass in her right breast. The radiologist recommended a breast biopsy. The referring physician did not see the mammogram report or the recommendation for biopsy. One year later, invasive breast cancer is diagnosed in the patient. Which one of the following is most likely to prevent this issue from happening again?
- A. Having a tracking system for all investigative reports.
- B. Requiring radiologists to phone the referring physician with every result.
- C. Notifying patients only if there is an abnormal finding.
- D. Asking patients to call laboratories and imaging centres for their test results.
- E. Booking return appointments with the referring physician to follow up every result.
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
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A 4-month-old girl is brought by a parent to your clinic with a history of recurrent vomiting since birth. She cries with feeding and has not gained weight in the last 2 weeks. Her hemoglobin level is 95 g/L (100-125).
The patient is currently being fed thickened hypoallergenic formula. Which one of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
- A. Calcium carbonate.
- B. Bismuth sulfate.
- C. Loperamide.
- D. Metoclopramide.
- E. Omeprazole.
Correct Answer: E 🗳️
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A 36-year-old woman presents to the office with a 2-month history of multiple asymptomatic bumps on her vulva. She is not currently sexually active but has had 2 male sexual partners in the past, with the most recent relationship ending 1 year ago. On examination, she appears to have genital warts. She has not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine and is not interested in any treatment that is not absolutely necessary.
Which of the following is the best next step?
- A. Excisional biopsy.
- B. Contact tracing.
- C. Papanicolaou test.
- D. Cryotherapy.
- E. HPV vaccine.
Correct Answer: E 🗳️
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A 20-year-old nulligravid woman presents with severe pain during menstruation. She is unable to take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and is adamant about not taking any hormonal therapy. She has questions about non-medicinal therapeutic options. Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate?
- A. Spinal manipulation
- B. Massage therapy
- C. Progesterone-releasing intrauterine device
- D. Laparoscopic uterine nerve ablation (LUNA)
- E. High-frequency transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
Correct Answer: E 🗳️
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